Words can not be anything but implicit since they can only be defined by words. Thus, what is explicit? Hoppe makes the argument that “It would be aggression if a person…[forced themselves on]…another persons body without having this person’s explicit consent”
What constitutes as explicit consent?
I would argue that action is the only thing explicit. People who act must choose and, by definition, a person’s action must have been the choice with the greatest benefit (least cost). Preferences are demonstrated through action and action is therefore explicit. Now question becomes, if action is defined as purposeful (mises) and impulses are not action, then are impulses explicit?
What constitutes as explicit consent?
I would argue that action is the only thing explicit. People who act must choose and, by definition, a person’s action must have been the choice with the greatest benefit (least cost). Preferences are demonstrated through action and action is therefore explicit. Now question becomes, if action is defined as purposeful (mises) and impulses are not action, then are impulses explicit?
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